ALT TEXT:
- Panel 1: A person with the text "Singular 'they'" written on them smiling with open arms.
- Panel 2: "Singular 'They'" beaten up by others who said, "Singular they is ungrammatical. It's too confusing," "How can anyone use plural pronouns for singular," and "Every pronoun should only have one purpose."
- Panel 3: "You" hiding from the mob who was beating "Singular 'They'"
- Panel 4: "German 'Sie'" hiding with even more fear next to "You"
It's because there isn't actually confusion about this. This is transphobes making up something to be angry and confused about in order to rope in the ignorant to harass trans people. It's not acceptable to say "trans people are bad, we should ostracize them" currently. So transphobes find something that could be confusing (nonbinary people using they/them) and convince ignorant people (people who don't know much about trans people and/or have no opinion) that it's confusing and wrong and people should "correct" them. Then you get ignorant people saying things like "they isn't singular" or "I can't get used to they/them and don't like using it." This creates a continuous debate on if trans people deserve to self-identify and generates constant micro-aggressions (or just full aggressions) against their entire community.
It's really just a way for transphobes to create a hostile environment for trans people over literally nothing.
Your comment makes it clear there is confusion. To clear it up, using singular they to refer to a specific, known individual is never something Shakespeare did, and is a recent invention. It's not transphobic to be grumpy about people trying to introduce a new usage for an existing word. People as a whole don't like change.
When do you think it was first used in the manner?
I'm not sure, and I'd be interested in reading more from someone that actually has done their research and doesn't claim that Shakespeare used singular they in that manner
If you're not sure, and wouldn't want to make a comment on it, why are you making a comment on it?
Sorry, I thought your question was asked in good faith. I'm commenting because the claim that Shakespeare used singular they to refer to a known, specific individual is factually incorrect. I don't know the entire history of singular they, but I do have access to wikipedia just like you. It says 'In the early 21st century, use of singular they with known individuals emerged for people who do not identify as male or female, as in, for example, "This is my friend, Jay. I met them at work."' Does that answer your question?
But that isn't the only use case of "them" being singular.
And it's embarrassing for you that you don't know that.
Right, I quoted a bit from the whole-ass Wikipedia page on Singular they in my response to you. I'm aware that there's multiple usages, and have said as much in my replies to you. I'm not sure what your point is.
You're finding a single case and using it to dismiss the whole argument.
It's obvious.