this post was submitted on 29 Mar 2024
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submitted 7 months ago by Lanky_Pomegranate530@midwest.social to c/atheistmemes@lemmy.world
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[–] BossDj@lemm.ee 0 points 7 months ago (1 children)

What I say is results of science --> science --> assuming our senses. Because something works we choose to explain how it works, we don't start with the assumption that it works and get it do so.

Make an observation of a something, then explain it, right? Observe it working. Observe using senses. That was step one?

Think of a mathematical proof. List the givens. So when you explain your results, you start with "given that senses are real and not a simulation..." I agree that questioning senses came later, but it doesn't change that we always assumed they were real.

I see the frustration with those philosophers. I assure you I'm not trying to discourage or discount science.

[–] afraid_of_zombies@lemmy.world 2 points 7 months ago (1 children)

Fine let's think of math. Did you learn to add and subtract in first grade via proofs or by counting? This is not only true as an individual this is true as a species. Someone noticed a pattern and only later did someone else write a proof. And then in the late 19th to early 20th century when set theory became a thing, when there was an attempt to justify all of math via itself endlessly problems popped up. Pretty much all math, according to some, depends on consistency of arithmetic which we don't know is true in the formal sense. Maybe one day someone will break that and get 2 = 3 and it won't matter. Because addition will still work.

[–] BossDj@lemm.ee 0 points 7 months ago

I think I understand you're saying senses existed before science. Science and philosophy helped us to get to a place where we can say "are senses real?"

Like "wow we were using our senses the entire time! That's how we observe! But how do we know senses are real? Oh we can't"