this post was submitted on 04 Jul 2023
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[–] ArcticCircleSystem@beehaw.org 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

My question is why is this only being spelled out now? Hell, where and why did the contrary idea come from in the first place??? ~Strawberry

[–] CrimsonOnoscopy@beehaw.org 2 points 1 year ago (1 children)

I don't think I understand what you mean. Are you asking about the origin of patriarchy and rape culture?

[–] ArcticCircleSystem@beehaw.org 2 points 1 year ago (1 children)

I guess so. But mainly why that's only being spelled out in law now rather than earlier. ~Strawberry

[–] Kempeth@feddit.de 2 points 1 year ago

A mix between people actually wanting spousal rape to remain legal, people not giving a fuck about feeemale issues, people getting scared that "they can't even talk to women soon without getting arrested" and probably a few other reasons that range from dumb to malicious.