this post was submitted on 26 Dec 2023
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[–] cucumber_sandwich@lemmy.world -5 points 8 months ago (2 children)

It absolutely does imo, it legitimises itself through an appeal to an underlying moral framework.

Yes, but very indirectly. We don't have a "moral police", but one that enforces laws which are, as you say, legitimized by the people as a sovereign.

So you don't see police stopping people on "moral grounds" in some vague interpretation.

[–] feminalpanda@lemmings.world 4 points 8 months ago (1 children)

What about abortion? Tracking if women are pregnant and hunting them down if then stop being pregnant.

[–] cucumber_sandwich@lemmy.world -2 points 8 months ago (1 children)

Usually codified by lawy not prosecuted as "immoral behaviour" as such. Although if you look at recent anti-abortion legislation in the US it is intentionally vague. That shifts some burden of interpretation to the executive branch and is a sign of authoritarianism I'd say.