this post was submitted on 28 Oct 2023
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[–] PunnyName@lemmy.world 10 points 1 year ago (3 children)
[–] Risk@feddit.uk 34 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Those plants didn't consent, so...

[–] Kaiserschmarrn@feddit.de 38 points 1 year ago

I can speak from experience that almonds are kinky little sluts and like to be milked.

[–] praise_idleness@sh.itjust.works 13 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Those are not technically milk so...

[–] PunnyName@lemmy.world 0 points 1 year ago (1 children)

To which authority? Because I know the milk conglomerate has been staunchly fighting for that very definition.

The lack of consent is more viable as a disqualifier.

[–] Turun@feddit.de 8 points 1 year ago (1 children)

I think the main distinction is lactose. And/or the proteins that are present in milk.

While oat milk and consorts can be used in a lot of use cases it's not a one to one replacement and it's dishonest to claim it is.

[–] PunnyName@lemmy.world -1 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

Depends on the uses. Food Theory did a great video about this very thing, covering preferred taste, consistency, price, protein / fat content, and bake-ability: https://youtu.be/df8FRfVtVNw

Lactose is simply the kind of sugar/ starch in the milk.

[–] killeronthecorner@lemmy.world 1 points 1 year ago

Euphemistic milks?