this post was submitted on 30 Oct 2024
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[–] nyctre@lemmy.world 1 points 3 days ago* (last edited 3 days ago) (1 children)

Uuuh, splitting hairs on my choice of words. The republican party split into two and so did the votes. The fact that I said "stole" wasn't part of the point. And ofc you're gonna say it's impossible to know..

It's just a coincidence that in 1908 it was 6.4m vs 7.7m votes (dems and republicans respectively) and in 1912 it was 6.3m vs 3.5m + 4.1m (Dems vs republicans and progressives respectively)

Yeah, the numbers stayed more or less the same except the republican vote got split. But yeah, that's just a coincidence, we have no way of knowing!

[–] Objection@lemmy.ml 0 points 3 days ago (1 children)

splitting hairs on my choice of words

If I don't keep y'all honest on terminology, you'll say all kinds of ridiculous nonsense to make my side look bad, whether it's "stealing votes" or "helping the other side."

It’s just a coincidence that in 1908 it was 6.4m vs 7.7m votes (dems and republicans respectively) and in 1912 it was 6.3m vs 3.5m + 4.1m (Dems vs republicans and progressives respectively)

And in 1916, when there were only two major candidates, it was 9.1m democrat vs 8.5m republican.

[–] nyctre@lemmy.world 1 points 3 days ago (1 children)

Exactly, thank you! People went back to voting republican again since there was no Roosevelt to split the vote! Now you're getting it!

[–] Objection@lemmy.ml -1 points 3 days ago

And lost. Because the electorate was shifting between 1908 and 1916, so there's no reason to think that the results of 1912 would've been the same as 1908.