this post was submitted on 23 Oct 2024
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[–] EvilCartyen@feddit.dk 7 points 3 weeks ago (2 children)

I just wonder if it's true. It's certainly true for many indo-european languages, but I wonder if there's been a typological study with a representative sample of languages done for it. I'm not sure I buy it being a language univeral.

[–] ricecake@sh.itjust.works 2 points 3 weeks ago

https://www.cell.com/current-biology/fulltext/S0960-9822(17)31114-4?xid=PS_smithsonian

I know I've read a handful of things roughly a long these line, that basically it's probably not universal that humans simplify language for infants, but that we likely do shift how we vocalize to them.

Seems like a reasonably plausible hypothesis to me.

[–] TimewornTraveler@lemm.ee 1 points 3 weeks ago (1 children)

우리 애기 너어어무 이쁘으찌이이이

[–] EvilCartyen@feddit.dk 1 points 3 weeks ago

우리 애기 너어어무 이쁘으찌이이이

Tillykke med dit smukke barn!