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Yes, the entirety of both wars had indiscriminate shelling of non military targets. The US from every perspective was the bad guys for the last 20 years globally due to their explicit murder of over 1.5 million known civillians
Still waiting on that specific example. I'm also a little leery of the "explicit murder of over 1.5 million known civillians" claim. Source on that one?
https://gpinvestigations.pri.org/the-us-is-killing-more-civilians-in-iraq-and-syria-than-it-acknowledges-9dc372d30998
https://www.hrw.org/reports/2003/usa1203/5.5.htm
https://archive.globalpolicy.org/security/issues/iraq/occupation/report/3weapons.htm
https://www.newyorker.com/magazine/2020/12/21/americas-war-on-syrian-civilians
Just a couple of examples, and that's not even getting into the farce of dual use targets
From the first article:
While another source disagrees, this is a "he said she said" situation.
From the second:
The third quotes the very paragraph above from the second, but quotes around and omits the line about areas where soldiers and civilians comingled.
From the fourth:
Note, US propaganda aside, I absolutely agree that war crimes were committed, specifically with regards to the use of certain types of munitions. This is a separate allegation from deliberate targeting and indiscriminate destruction of exclusively civilian populations though.
War is hell, after all. All war is hell. It always kills civilians if they are present, yet it remains legal if pursued with appropriate "care". It takes more, then, than fighting occuring within residential areas to demonstrate the targeting of civilians.
K
Wikipedia has brief introductions to both concepts for you since it's the first time you've heard about america's involvement in the middle east.
you really did just refuse to link wikipedia while citing it as your source
Uh huh. I'll go "do my own research" right away, thanks.