this post was submitted on 27 May 2024
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[–] neeeeDanke@feddit.de 19 points 5 months ago (10 children)

Awsome logic in the original original post.

On a totally unrelated note: whats the biggest number between 0 and 1 (0<x<1)?

[–] Cassa@lemmy.blahaj.zone 5 points 5 months ago (6 children)

Wouldn't it be like 9.99 into infinity? 🤔 and since the human population (at least currently living) is not infinete, then at some 9.999999 there wouldn't be anyone with a higher value? (I don't know math)

[–] onion@feddit.de 6 points 5 months ago (5 children)

0.9999... is equal to 1, so no

[–] Cassa@lemmy.blahaj.zone 5 points 5 months ago (4 children)

no, not really. In engineering math, sure but theoretical math it's not

[–] emergencyfood@sh.itjust.works 6 points 5 months ago

0.999… = 1 in theory also.

Otherwise, there exists a δ such that 1 - δ = 0.999…

Then, the δ should have a first nonzero digit. Let us say it is in the millionth placd. But then, 0.999… cannot have a 9 in the millionth place.

[–] Sas@beehaw.org 2 points 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago)

It is in theoretical math as well. I just woke up and don't know the proof by heart but there is a proof for 0.99 repeating being true equal to 1.

[–] matiamas@lemmy.world 2 points 5 months ago

Even in theoretical math, 0.999 repeating ends up being exactly equal to 1. In fact, any terminating decimal can be rewritten in a similar manner. For example, 0.25 is exactly equal to 0.24999999 repeating

[–] Loki@discuss.tchncs.de 1 points 5 months ago

What's 3 * 1/3? What's 3 * 0.3333333...?

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