this post was submitted on 12 Jul 2023
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[–] graphite@lemmy.world -1 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (1 children)

The usage of the analogy by definition implies a comparison of some kind.

Otherwise, wny use it?

[–] prole@sh.itjust.works 3 points 1 year ago (1 children)

To exaggerate and make a point? To rile people up and ruffle some feathers? The comparison isn't between the two of them and the two Nazis, the comparison is between the two of them.

[–] graphite@lemmy.world 0 points 1 year ago (1 children)

No no no, those are valid, sure, but they wouldn't be possible without that initial comparison.

The comparison isn't between the two of them and the two Nazis, the comparison is between the two of them.

There's the implication that they're both "evil" or "bad figures", which is the entire point. The analogy itself wouldn't be that great otherwise

[–] prole@sh.itjust.works 2 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

Yeah, the implication is that their bad or evil, but I don't really see it as comparing them to the Nazis. They just exaggerated for effect and used the most extreme example of "evil" they could think of to make a point.

At least that how it seemed to me.