this post was submitted on 21 Apr 2024
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The global spread of the Indo-european language family (cdn.masto.host)
submitted 5 months ago by andrew@andrew.masto.host to c/mapporn@lemmy.world
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The global spread of the Indo-european language family

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[–] jol@discuss.tchncs.de 10 points 5 months ago (1 children)

How is no one in 1950 native to European languages in africa besides south africa?

[–] Ephera@lemmy.ml -3 points 5 months ago (1 children)

I'm guessing, it doesn't list the colonizers there, because in terms of numbers, they're irrelevant...

[–] jol@discuss.tchncs.de 4 points 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago) (1 children)

Yes, let's ignore the whole of the Americas and Australia.

Lots of people in African ex colonies are native speakers of Portuguese and French. I presume this was already the case in 1950.

[–] Ephera@lemmy.ml 1 points 5 months ago (1 children)

Then I guess, I was guessing wrong? I'm not trying to claim anything and I did specify "there", because I did notice the Americas and Australia. I assumed, the definition of "native speaker" was maybe a bit special here...

[–] jol@discuss.tchncs.de 1 points 5 months ago (1 children)

It's confusing specially because it highlights south africa but nothing else.

[–] Ephera@lemmy.ml 1 points 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago)

My thinking was that South Africa might have had more immigrants from Europe and such than e.g. Congo. At least, I believe, South Africa is particularly known for having many white folks there. But yeah, I'm also just spitballing...