this post was submitted on 09 Jul 2023
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The first 3 lines are trivial, but it's been a while since I did any calculus. Would you use integration by parts for it?
Wolfram gives me:
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5/2 🥧Calculus was 20 years ago for me...
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I don’t think that would work. You just use the fact that the integral from negative to positive infinity of sin(x)/x is pi, so from 0 to infinity it is pi/2, which you can derive from using Feynman’s trick for computing weird integrals like these.
Ah, that's the trick I was missing. Thx!