this post was submitted on 13 Mar 2024
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[–] TurtleJoe@lemmy.world 0 points 6 months ago (3 children)

Cite your sources on this economic theory of yours, that is if you can find any that didn't come out of some MRA's ass

[–] Clent@lemmy.world 2 points 6 months ago

Yeah, the entire premise requires that women entering the workforce didn't cause any new jobs to come into existence.

Childcare alone is a huge industry.

Both working parents often means two vehicles, that's an increase in manufacturing.

It also ignores that women were already part of the workforce but their options were restricted.

Two household incomes exist because it's the only way to survive the past 40 years of wage stagflation. We have an increase in multi-generational households because two incomes is no longer enough.

[–] abbotsbury@lemmy.world 1 points 6 months ago (1 children)

Obviously women should have the same labor opportunities as men, but do you really think doubling the pool of workers would have no impact on the labor market?

It only becomes MRA bullshit when you stop there and say "see, feminism was a mistake!" instead of arguing for all workers to be better compensated.

[–] givesomefucks@lemmy.world 3 points 6 months ago (1 children)

but do you really think doubling the pool of workers would have no impact on the labor market?

Why are you talking about hypotheticals?

Some women worked before then, some still didn't work after.

It was a lot closer to a 10% increase than 100%

[–] abbotsbury@lemmy.world -5 points 6 months ago (1 children)

I'm not talking about hypotheticals; women generally didn't work, and a couple decades later they did. The effective labor pool expanded.

[–] givesomefucks@lemmy.world 4 points 6 months ago

https://www.bls.gov/opub/reports/womens-databook/2021/home.htm

I'd quote a part, but you should really read the whole thing.

[–] NoIWontPickAName@kbin.earth 0 points 6 months ago

What part do you disagree with?