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I think one of the main issues with the interpretation is the meaning of lust.
Is it attraction? Is it masturbation with a woman in mind? Is it flirting?
In the time these things were written, women were widely viewed as property and desire was not a huge part of marriage. Who knows what specific sort of cultural thing he might have been referring to?
Personally I think lust is the debasement of a person for your own enjoyment. People consensually engaging in sexual exhibition and other feelings of attraction or sexual fantasy are probably not what Jesus had in mind and aren’t really harmful to healthy adults.
Not widely.
Ancient Egyptians, who were around when the Bible was written/collected, absolutely had the concept of women being more than objects and while not having equal rights, as I recall they were at least allowed to own things/land and go out on their own.
Ditto the Gauls and Celts. Hell, one of the reasons for Boudicca's revolt is the massive loss of rights for women going from Celtic culture/law to Roman culture/law.
Widely in the Semitic and Roman culture and religious context who made up Jesus’ audience*