this post was submitted on 05 Nov 2023
802 points (97.9% liked)
Memes
45746 readers
1694 users here now
Rules:
- Be civil and nice.
- Try not to excessively repost, as a rule of thumb, wait at least 2 months to do it if you have to.
founded 5 years ago
MODERATORS
you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
view the rest of the comments
q1 and q2 can be negative. The force is the same as if they were positive because -1 x -1 = 1
In this case yes, but if q1 was -20μC, q2 was 30μC, and r was 0.5m, then using -20μC as it is would make F equal to -21.6N which is just 21.6N of attraction force between the two charges.
If they are oppositely charged particles, I would expect that there is a force of attraction acting on them, yes.
I am not saying that's wrong, just that there's 21.6N of attraction force between the two charges not -21.6N.
But those are the same thing.
No, if the force is negative it acts in the opposite direction
Yes, and a force acting in the opposite direction of the distance is an attractive force.
But that if both are negative not one pos one neg like the previous commenter gave in their examples, so the true formula has an absolute value in the numerator: |q1Xq2|
No, but there should be a minus in the Coulomb formula