this post was submitted on 02 Oct 2024
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[–] Madison420@lemmy.world 1 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

The movement towards Israeli as a state is a direct result of the actions of 1834, that's specifically why I mentioned it.

Then you didn't read.

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/1834_looting_of_Safed

[–] Altofaltception@lemmy.world 0 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

The problem with this opinion is that it's not based on fact: the Zionist movement originated in Europe as a result of pogroms there, not in the Middle East.

[–] Madison420@lemmy.world 1 points 2 weeks ago* (last edited 2 weeks ago) (1 children)

The problem with that opinion is it's not ~~hard~~ based on fact, the families that fled often ended up in Europe. ~~Still~~Some of which were later displaced again by pograms in Europe.

It's literally in the history of Zionism written by avowed Zionists. You might as well argue with water about how wet it may or may not be.

[–] Altofaltception@lemmy.world 1 points 1 day ago (1 children)

Huh?

The families that fled the Romans?

[–] Madison420@lemmy.world 1 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago)

Modern Zionism ie the Zionism of the Israeli government is not based on Roman pograms though I'm sure some could indeed trace back that far. That said even making your argument proves my point further.