this post was submitted on 04 May 2024
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[–] panbroggi@feddit.it 6 points 6 months ago (7 children)

Very nice! Fun fact: half of these homonyms work in neo-Latin languages, too.

[–] sik0fewl@lemmy.ca 3 points 6 months ago (6 children)

Umm... these aren't homonyms in English πŸ™‚.

They are heteronyms, which means same spelling but pronounced differently.

[–] panbroggi@feddit.it 2 points 6 months ago (2 children)

Well some of them are, like Polish and polish. I agree that different pronounciation is pretty exclusive, though.

[–] lars@lemmy.sdf.org 3 points 6 months ago

I’m pretty sure they’re all heteronyms in spoken English and make sense only if you use two pronunciations of the duplicated word.

[–] sik0fewl@lemmy.ca 1 points 6 months ago

In my accent Polish/polish are pronounced differently. In what accent are they the same?

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